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It is ungrammatical to use 'has' in questions that begin with 'do' or 'does' Does anyone has/have a black pen In these types of questions the verb 'do' is conjugated based on whether the noun is first, second or third person (eg do i, do you or , does he)
The 'have' part of the question is not conjugated and appears as the bare infinitive regardless of the person of the noun. Here, i wish to ask a question of the form I have a question about where to use is and has
Tea is come or tea has come lunch is ready or lunch has ready he is come back or he has come back she is assigned for work or.
What are the differences in meaning between the following sentences All of the sentences below convey the meaning of compulsion of exercise to be carried out in three months Could you please tell me the difference between has vs has been 1) the idea has deleted vs.
2) the idea has been deleted what is the difference between these two? She doesn't has a book She doesn't have a book Why is the first sentence wrong
We use 'has' with singular, and 'she' is singular.
The subject of have is videos and pictures, which is a compound of two plural nouns The correct verb form is have It has, and they have. What is the difference in meaning in these two sentences
He is appointed as manager And he has been appointed as manager Similarly, what is the difference between these two sentences? According to my understanding, 'has' is what i should use because 'ferrari' is a name of a team
But, i've been listening to a lot of youtubers using 'have'
One of such examples is charles leclerc escapes penalty and more | jolyon palmer on the 2019 italian grand prix At 16:04, he says ferrari, since the summer break, have hit hard. Could someone explain (in simple terms) which of the following are correct, and if they are correct, when to use them Has seen had seen had saw has saw is this just a memoriz.
I have read a similar question here but that one talks about the usage of has/have with reference to anyone
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